Forcing a quit claim?
Q. Ex-wife continues to resist any attempts to have her sign a quitclaim, so next step is back to court on 6/13/03 with a Motion to
Transfer Property.
Seems silly to have to go to this length. Has anyone else ever
dealt with a situation when one person (respondent, probably)
does not sign the decree, does not sign ANYTHING that the court
approves, causing further work to have the court enter its orders?
A. In at least one court I've been in, their normal practice is to put
a provision in court orders for the transfer of property that if the
person refuses to sign, that the court clerk shall sign the deed as
a limited attorney-in-fact.
Personally, I prefer to avoid the problem altogether and just have
the original judgement effect the transfer of the property by itself.